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Posted By angie on 03-07-2019, 09:01:27 in Ob-Gyn
wanted to confirm providers should be using Fetus 1, fetus 2 verbiage vs Baby A and Baby b due to ICD-10 coding guidelines.
wanting to have some kind of handouts that they should be using fetus 1 vs baby a or doesn't it matter? I thought it changed when ICd-10 became active
Thank You
Comments (1)
Posted By Melanie Witt on 03-14-2019, 17:06:00
Under the rules, fetus 1 would refer to Baby A, and fetus 2 would refer to Baby B, etc. How your provider documents the this is up to them, but the correct code must specify which fetus as 1, 2, etc. so they should get in the habit of doing so, or you need something in writing as a protocol and allows you to select the correct code based on the Baby A, Baby B description used by the provider.
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