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Posted By anita lawnick on 04-20-2018, 13:50:46 in Ob-Gyn
We have a post partum (almost 2 weeks) ob patient, who is bleeding. I was going to use O72.2 for the dx but not sure if I should be using an ob cpt scan or gyn scan. Just looking for thoughts on this. Thanks
Comments (3)
Posted By Melanie Witt on 04-25-2018, 15:11:21
That would be your only option if it were done transabdominally. But sometimes they do a transvaginal scan instead and then it would be 76817. Check on the approach.
Posted By anita lawnick on 04-20-2018, 14:39:56
Thanks Melaine that's what I thought. For evaluating this problem...I'm looking at a76815 limited scan, do you agree?
Posted By Melanie Witt on 04-20-2018, 14:34:04
Per the CPT Assistant, if the purpose of the scan is to evaluate a condition related to pregnancy you bill an OB scan, not gyn, even if the findings show no OB problem. Since you are reporting a problem related to pregnancy, you would be reporting an OB scan.
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